Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

I’m wondering about attachment and transference with the therapist and the idea of escape and fantasy? How much do you think your strong feelings, constant thoughts, desires to be with your therapist are a way to escape from your present life? I wonder if the transference serves another purpose than to show us our wounds and/or past experiences, but is a present coping strategy for managing what we don’t want to face (even if unconsciously) in the present—-current relationships, life circumstances, etc. Can anyone relate to this concept of escape in relation to their therapy relationship? How does this play out for you?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Are greedy private sector landlords responsible for Britain's housing crisis?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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